Some years ago when I was self employed, I broke my ankle (which was a very bad brake) and I could not work, so being a house owner applied for help with the mortgage while I was of sick.
Unfortunately five years before that I taken a re-mortgage on the the property (which is classed in law as a further loan) so that part therefor is not recognised, so I was only eligible for 50% assistance with the mortgage repayments.
Needless to say it was not long before, myself and building society were having words concerning the arrears that were mounting up, so I was forced to sell the property.
At the time my full mortgage payment was in the region of £91pm (very old property which was purchased at the right time very cheaply).
So I moved into a private rented property with a rent of £180pm which the benefits department paid for without any quibbles whatsoever.
I ask you, where is the logic.?
(I know we use the word mortgage payments on a daily basis, although it's only the interest on the mortgage that you/we actually pay or get help with, so the word "Mortgage" is only used figuratively)